Bible Manuscripts, God's Name, Jesus

The oldest extant manuscripts of the Masoretic Text date from approximately the 9th century CE,^[3] and the Aleppo Codex (once the oldest complete copy of the Masoretic Text, but now missing its Torah section) dates from the 10th century (Wikipedia--Masortic Text).

Another Talmudic story, perhaps referring to an earlier time, relates that three Torah scrolls were found in the Temple court but were at variance with each other. The differences were then resolved by majority decision among the three.^[4]

(Where was the preserved original they could have compared them to?)

The current received text finally achieved predominance through the reputation of the Masoretes, schools of scribes and Torah scholars working between the 7th and 11th centuries, based primarily in the Land of Israel in the cities of Tiberias and Jerusalem, and in Babylonia.

(Where is the preserved original? They would not need to be working on anything. They would just be copying, RIGHT?)

Ben Asher was the last of a distinguished family of Masoretes extending back to the latter half of the 8th century. Despite the rivalry of ben Naphtali and the opposition of Saadia Gaon, the most eminent representative of the Babylonian school of criticism, ben Asher's codex became recognized as the standard text of the Bible.

(What about the preserved original? Would it not rather be the codex?)

The language of the Masoretic notes is primarily Aramaic but partly Hebrew.

(So, it is a lie that the Old Testament was totally written in Hebrew?)

Even though often cited as very exact, the masoretic "frequency notes" in the margin of Codex Leningradiensis contain several errors.^[13][14][15]

(Several errors when they claim they copied without error from the original?)

Early rabbinic sources, from around 200 CE, mention several passages of Scripture in which the conclusion is inevitable that the ancient reading must have differed from that of the present text.

(Differed? What about the claim all copies were made and no errors could possibly have come in?)

The Dead Sea Scrolls have shed new light on the history of the Masoretic Text. Many texts found there, especially those from Masada, are quite similar to the Masoretic Text, suggesting that an ancestor of the Masoretic Text was indeed extant as early as the 2nd century BCE. However, other texts, including many of those from Qumran, differ substantially, indicating that the Masoretic Text was but one of a diverse set of Biblical writings (Lane Fox 1991:99-106; Tov 1992:115).

(Diverse? Which means there were errors and the wording was not copied precisely as they claim?) 

During the Neo-Assyrian and the Neo-Babylonian period, Aramaeans, the native speakers of Aramaic, began to settle in greater numbers, at first in Babylonia, and later in Assyria (Upper Mesopotamia; modern-day northern Iraq, northeast Syria, northwest Iran), and south eastern Turkey.^[10] The influx eventually resulted in the Neo Assyrian Empire and Chaldean Dynasty of Babylonia becoming operationally bilingual in written sources, with Aramaic used alongside Akkadian. As these empires, and the Persian Empire that followed, extended their influence in the region, Aramaic gradually became the lingua franca of most of Western Asia and Egypt.^[10]

(So admitting Aramaic is not Hebrew, and that this Assyrian language replace the older Paleo-Hebrew?)

Aramaic, like Hebrew, is a Northwest Semitic language, and the two share many features. From the 7th century BCE, Aramaic became the lingua franca of the Middle East. It became the language of diplomacy and trade, but was not used by the Hebrew populace at this early date. As described in 2 Kings 18:26, Hezekiah, king of Judah, demands to negotiate with Assyrian ambassadors in Aramaic rather than "Judean" (or "Judahite") so that the common people would not understand.

(Wow, admitting the Jews did not speak Aramaic at the time of Hezekias?)

During the 6th century BCE, the Babylonian captivity brought the working language of Mesopotamia much more into the daily life of ordinary Jews. Around 500 BCE, Darius I of Persia proclaimed^{[citation needed]} that Aramaic would be the official language for the western half of his empire, and the Eastern Aramaic dialect of Babylon became the official standard. Documentary evidence shows the gradual shift from Hebrew to Aramaic:

1. Hebrew is used as first language and in society; other, similar Canaanite languages are known and understood.
2. Aramaic is used in international diplomacy and foreign trade.
3. Aramaic is used for communication between subjects and the imperial administration.
4. Aramaic gradually becomes the language of outer life (in the marketplace for example).
5. Aramaic gradually replaces Hebrew in the home, and the latter is used only in religious activity.

These phases took place over a fairly protracted period, and the rate of change varied depending on the place and social class in question: the use of one or other language was likely a social, political and religious barometer.

(Admitting Aramaic and Hebrew are not the same tongue or language. How could Aramaic replace Hebrew if Aramaic and Hebrew were the same tongue?)

ARAMAIC LANGUAGE AMONG THE JEWS:

Table of Contents

• Considered Foreign by Ancient Hebrews.
• Aramaic Displaces Hebrew.
• The Targum, the Aramaic Version of the Scriptures.
• Language of Amoraim.
• Arabic Displaces Aramaic.
• The Zohar.
• Names and Dialects of Aramaic.
• Extent of Aramaic Literature.

Considered Foreign by Ancient Hebrews.

Of all Semitic languages the Aramaic is most closely related to the Hebrew, and forms with it, and possibly with the Assyrian, the northern group of Semitic languages. Aramaic, nevertheless, was considered by the ancient Hebrews as a foreign tongue; and a hundred years before the Babylonian exile it was understood only by people of culture in Jerusalem. Thus the ambassador of the Assyrian king who delivered an insolent message from his master in the Hebrew language and in the hearing of the people sitting upon the wall, was requested by the high officials of King Hezekiah not to speak in Hebrew, but in the "Syrian language," which they alone understood (II Kings xviii. 26; Isa. xxxvi. 11).

(Proof the Jews at that time did not speak Aramaic which is later falsely called Hebrew?)

______________________________________

These quotes are all from Wikipedia pages. They show clearly that ancient Paleo-Hebrew as not Aramaic. What is not said, which is a shame, is that ancient Paleo-Hebrew is not Hebrew at all but Phoenician. The Israelites adopted the Phoenician language around 1000BC. This is the language Hezekias and the Israelites used. When the Assyrians came with their Aramaic, they spoke instead in the Phoenician tongue. Hezekias asked them to speak in the Syrian Aramaic language because he and his little band of advisors understood that Babylonian language. We can see right here that Aramaic which is falsely called Hebrew today, was a foreign language. They admit it is a foreign language to the ancient Israelites.

The Jews admit the rabbis translated the ancient Bible scrolls that were in the Phoenician language into Aramaic.

But that Aramaic text it totally lost. What remains are the Targums. These are writings by various rabbis that include quotations of scripture. The Targums differ greatly and attempts to reconcile them continues. The differences between these Targums indicate either willful changing the text of scriptures or a lack of proper education to copy or translate.

At issue here more than vowels between the consonants, is the tetragrammaton YHVH or YHWH. These four letters come from Babylon and from a pagan god named Jahve or Yahve. This god is recognized by all Assriologist as the name of the chief god of the Assyrian Akkadian pantheon. When the Babylonian rabbis translated the scriptures from Paleo-Hebrew (Phoenician), they interpolated the consonants of this Babylonian chief god into them in over 5000 places. There is no "Hebrew" bible ever. There is no such thing as a Hebrew language. Jews admit that Phoenician is called Paleo-Hebrew but it is not Hebrew. They admit that the Aramaic language is not Hebrew. They admit it is a foreign tongue. How then did Aramaic come to be called Hebrew?

It came to be called Hebrew only because of the Aramaic bible translation. This bible translation in Aramaic was called the Hebrew scriptures. Not because the language was Hebrew, but because the people who used this Aramaic bible translation were Hebrews. This Aramaic bible was then called the Hebrew bible, or the bible of the Hebrews.  It is customary today to see scholars refer back and forth to the Aramaic and Hebrew. They now claim the Hebrew Aramaic is a little different than the ancient Aramaic because of the style of the letters have changed. But this does not change the fact that what they call Hebrew is actually Aramaic.

Scholars cannot produce a real Hebrew bible because there never was one. There never was a Hebrew language. If Abraham came to the Jews in Babylon in would not know how to talk to them. Because they would be speaking in either Phoenician or Aramaic and he spoke neither. This is important because we now have bibles where Abraham is not only speaking Aramaic, he is using the name of a pagan idol god Jahve(h) or Yahve(h), Catholic corrupted to Jehovah. The mystery of the tetragrammaton is solved. We know its root is in ancient Assyria and we know this god was the chief god of their pantheon.

Why did Abraham call his God El-Shaddai (God Almight; Gen 17:1, 28:3)? Why when God appeared to him, to Isaac, and to Jacob did he call himself El-Shaddai and never YHVH or YHWH, the name of the Assyrian god (Gen 17:1? Abraham never knew any god named YHVH or YHWH. He named his son Ishma-EL showing who his God was. Why then, did the Babylonian rabbis insert the tetragrammaton into the scriptures and have Abraham saying Jehovah when that name was not invented until around 1260AD? Why did they have him saying Jehovah hidden in the secret code LORD when he never knew this god or the secret code?

Read this next confession by a world famous scholar:

This is not Pastor Reckart saying this. I am just showing you that these scholars know the ancient bible scrolls were perverted. They tell us when and by whom.The enormous task of trying to unravel all this fraud covers centuries. If you defend this fraud you are not on the side of God.

Here is the picture as I see it:

The original scriptures were written by Moses. Before his book of the Law there were no written scriptures.

This book of the Law was translated into Paleo-Hebrew by Levite priest sometime around 1000BC.

This book of the Law was found written in the Phoenician Paleo-Hebrew language in the time of Josiah (2Kings 22:1-11). There was at that time only one book of the Law remaining. It was lost but found in the temple. This one book of the Law, and by Law I mean the first four books of the bible. There were no other books now in the OT with this book. So of the 39 books now, 35 did not exist in the days of Josiah. Josephus mentions 22 books in his day and this is contemporary with Jesus and the Apostles. Many of the other books had not been added yet. This book of the Law was called the book of the covenant (Exo 24:7). It is impossible for these four books to contain the tetragrammaton YHVH or YHWH since this Assyrian god was not known to Moses and it was not the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. The other books of the Old Testament we now have were added centuries later. We do not know when. Some claim Ezra added them. I cannot accept what is not proven. Jewish conjecture and traditions cannot become fact because of repetitious repeating of the traditions by rabbis or others. The point here is that the tetragrammaton god YHVH and YHWH was not known to the ancient patriarchs of Israel. And this false idol name was inserted into the Aramaic translated scriptures by evil rabbis.

Evil rabbis can make all the translations they want. But God will not allow them to stand.

At the same time the Babylonian evil rabbis were translating the Paleo-Hebrew scriptures and making their Aramaic bible, God worked out his own bible translation. It happened in Egypt around 280BC. As the Babylonian rabbis were translating and corrupting the Paleo-Hebrew into the foreign Aramaic tongue, God was working with 70 other rabbis in Alexandria, Egypt to translate the same scriptures into another foreign tongue... GREEK.

These Alexandrian rabbis apparently did not know about the Babylonian rabbis and their corrupted translation incorporating the tetragrammaton god. They translated the ancient Paleo-Hebrew into Greek. And what is so shocking right off the bat, is that in the Greek translation there is no tetragrammaton. There is no YHVH or YHWH. It is a lie that these letters could not have been written in Greek. If that lie was true, there could be no Greek words that contain any of those letters. So if you ask me to produce an ancient Bible that does not have the tetragrammaton I will hand you the Greek Septuagint. Why do Jews admit they used the Greek Septuagint in their synagogues in the days of Jesus and the Apostles, but people lie about this and say they used the Hebrew, which they mean Babylonian Aramaic? When Jesus took the book and read (Luke 4:17-20),  he was reading from a Greek Bible. Anyone who denies this is of the devil.

The quotations from the Old Testament found in the New are in the main taken from the Septuagint; and even where the citation is indirect the influence of this version is clearly seen (Jewish Encyclopedia--Bible Translations)

Aquila.

Two things, however, rendered the Septuagint unwelcome in the long run to the Jews. Its divergence from the accepted text (afterward called the Masoretic) was too evident; and it therefore could not serve as a basis for theological discussion or for homiletic interpretation. This distrust was accentuated by the fact that it had been adopted as Sacred Scripture by the new faith (Christians, my clarification here). A revision in the sense of the canonical Jewish text was necessary. This revision was made by a proselyte, Aquila, who lived during the reign of Hadrian (117-138). He is reported to have been a pupil of R. Akiba and to have embodied in his revision the principles of the strictest literal interpretation of the text; certainly his translation is pedantic, and its Greek is uncouth (ibid).

A third translator, Symmachus, whose date is not known, tried to smooth down Aquila's un-Grecian Greek by the use of both the Septuagint and Theodotion (ibid).

Aramaic was selected by the rabbis after the day of Jesus Christ because they could use the name YHVH and YHWH as the name of their God, which Jesus NEVER USED. In fact, Jesus told the rabbis, they neither knew him or his Father (John 8:19). They knew the Babylonian Assyrian god YHVH/YHWH, but they did not know the God Jesus called Father. This proves right here that this Assyrian pagan god YHVH/YHWH is not the true God.

ARAMAIC LANGUAGE AMONG THE JEWS – ...1). It was in Aramaic that Josephus had written his book on the "Jewish War," as he himself informs us in the introduction, before he wrote it in Greek. That he meant the Aramaic is evident from the reason he ...linguistically Aramaized is shown by the fact that Hillel loved to frame his maxims in that language.The Targum, the Aramaic Version of the Scriptures. The oldest ...literary monument of the Aramaization of Israel would be the Tarcum, the Aramaic version of the Scriptures, were it not that this received its final revision in a somewhat later age."

Why revise something you claim was copied exactly from generation to generation? Someone is lying here.

In all my years of defending the name of Jesus above all names, I have never met such hate, such slander, such lies, such perversions, as those that come from the people trying to make the tetragrammaton god the true God. The hate is enormous. The slander is great. But I will not cave in to liars be they rabbis, monks, Catholics, Protestants, or Pentecostal Catholics. The name of Jesus is not associated or connected to any Assyrian god.

You can keep your Assyrian YHVH/YHWH Jehovah, Yahweh, Yah, Jah, Iah, god. I do not want him. I have Jesus Christ as my God. He never told me I had to have another God. And he never gave me the name of another God to believe in and trust for my salvation.

I am totally dedicated to the name of the Lord Jesus Christ God.

No other God,No other Name.

Bishop Reckart
A Man God Made :)

http://thejewishjesus.blogspot.com/2013/08/it-is-official-we-now-know.html