Jehovah, Yahweh, Yah, Jah et al

This is an alleged copy of Psalms 119-59-64 of the Dead Sea Scrolls written in Aramaic (Babylonian language). You can see where I have pointed an arrow at the tetragrammation inserted (interpolated) into the text and scroll. The interpolation is sloppy. It is not authentic. But many ignorant will accept this as proof YHWH or YHVH is the authentic name of God. No one knows exactly how this was pronounced. It was not until 1270AD that a Catholic monk invented Jehovah for it and then around 1725AD when another monk invented Yahweh. Scholars admit these are guess names.

There are reports that some copies of the Septuagint Greek Old Testament (called the LXX from the 70 who translated it) contained the tetragrammaton also:

In this example the location again there is an inserted interpolated YHWH or YHVH. No one knows the date of this particular alleged copy of the LXX. In fact, we do not even know if it is a copy or if it is a copy of a page from the Aquila retranslation circa 135AD. In an effort to make it appear a valid copy of the LXX some scholars tap their head and say it dates from 50BC to 50AD. And from this claim it was the very text used in the time of Jesus and the Apostles. This is alleged but no one can prove it. But what if this is a copy from a page of Aquila's perverted translation around 135AD requested by Rabbi Akiba who was a confessed antichrist? It this is from Aquila's perversion we can understand why there would be a emphasis on the god of these Jews. It would place the focus not on Jesus as Lord but on some god whose name they supposedly had lost and did not know how to pronounce.

Why do I keep bringing this up? It is because millions claim YHWH or YHVH is the name of God the Father while Jesus is the name of God the Son. In this way, they claim the monk guess names Jehovah and Yahweh are names for God the Father and these names are greater than the name of Jesus the second God of rank. Can this be true? Did the Jews know this alleged God the Father to be the true God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob and the other Old Testament men of God? And if this YHWH and YHVH were well known to them as their God the Father, what do we do with the following verses of Scripture:

JOH 5:43 I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.

JOH 8:19 Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.




JOH 14:7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.

Whoever the Father God the Jews claimed to be God, which we know was YHWH or YHVH, Jesus denied this was his Father. Jesus said it clearly they did not know his Father. He could not say this if YHWH and YHVH known to them was his Father. To the simple minded person this is enough proof that the god of the Jews at that time was not the God whom Jesus spoke of as Father.

I have pointed out that neither Jesus or the Apostles ever used the Dead Sea Scrolls or any like kind manuscripts of the Old Testament. The Scriptures they spoke of was the Greek Septuagint and which they quoted nearly 100% of the time or a paraphrase from them. It is in these Greek Scriptures that Kurios (Lord) was translated in over 3,000 places where there is now an attempt to interpolate the tetragrammations YHWH and YHVH. If the original Jewish translators of the LXX recognized Lord (Adonai) as the correct name in these places and translated it Kurios (Greek for Lord), then we have an accurate translation. Not only this, but the fact Jesus and the Apostles used Kurios (Lord) would indicate they accepted and agreed with the translation.

There are attempts to claim Jesus spoke only Aramaic and this cannot be proved. We know Jesus spoke Paleo Hebrew on at least one occasion in Acts 26:14 (in the Hebrew tongue means Paleo Hebrew). We also know that Jesus was raised in an area called Galilee of the Gentiles, and in this region Greek was the bilingual language. It would have been impossible for Jesus not to have known Greek or spoke it. Many of the words Jesus used had Greek connection. My point here is that Jesus no where used any Aramaic translated Old Testament bibles if one even existed. All we have are the Dead Sea Scrolls and there is no evidence these represented an existing Aramaic Old Testament accepted by the Jews.

We are on a search of the name of God in the New Testament. And when we begin this search will we find Jesus or the Apostles using YHWH or YHVH? Jesus already said the Jews did not know his Father. And we already have the text: "ye should have known my Father also (John 14:7)." But the Jews did not know this God. Then in the quoted text, Jesus is very clear that if they had known him they would know who the Father God was. When Jesus said: "henceforth ye know him and have seen him" he was showing the world that he and the Father were one. He was also showing the world they could know the name of God he Father because he came in his Father's name (John 5:43). It is here, we know the name of the Father is Jesus. And when you see Jesus and call him Father, you have just made one of the greatest expressions of worship to God.

Okay, the Jews did not know the name of God and they rejected Jesus' name as the name of God the Father. But what about the Apostles in their preaching and writing of the New Testament? Why in all of the New Testament is the tetragrammation absent? How come YHWH or YHVH is absent and missing? How come when Paul wrote to the Greeks, when John wrote the seven Churches of Greek cities, they never used YHWH or YHVH or inserted these Paleo Hebrew characters into their writings like we find in the Dead Sea Scrolls?

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An ancient coin showing the roof of the temple in Jerusalem with the hex star perched over it. This star Remphan represented the god YHWH or YHVH.

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